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Virgin Birth

Henry Imler September 11th, 2007

N.T. Wright gives three interesting lines of argument for thinking
that perhaps, just perhaps we have cause to think that Jesus was indeed
conceived while Mary was still a virgin. Wright does note that from a
strictly historical standpoint, the issue cannot be resolved either
way. However, there are some reasons to thing that it was possible. The
following is a synopsis of what Wright espouses along these lines in
chapter 11 of Two Visions of Jesus.

  1. God is not wholly outside our universe, acting only on
    occasion to intervene in history. Instead, the Jewish God is very close
    and involved with our lives. Given this, it would be quite allowable
    for God to act in this way to usher in the climax of history, taking up
    His title of creator to bring “a new creation from the womb of the old“.
  2. Isaiah
    7:14 was never used in any Jewish tradition to support the idea of the
    messiah having a virgin birth. Matthew was the first. It would not make
    sense to incorporate a pagan idea (hero having a virgin birth, e.i.
    Alexander and Augustus) into a very Jewish story, unless it happened.
    Once it had occurred, then were the stories of Isaiah 7:14 looked at again with a new perspective.
  3. If
    the early Christian community thought this happened, why did two very
    different stories take shape? If it were really a metaphor for
    something about Jesus, then it should have had a unified beginning, not
    the two separate cores that we see in Matthew and Luke. Once again, the
    stories of Matthew and Luke are very Jewish, and the virgin birth does
    not even matter that much to the story of Jesus. God could have easily
    used the child of Joseph and Mary as the messiah. In the stories of
    Matthew and Luke we have following progression of themes: “Jewish -> Pagan -> Jewish
    the rest of the way. It does not make sense for the climax of the
    Jewish story to have a pagan introduction, unless it happened.

3 Responses to “Virgin Birth”

  1. Danny [Visitor]on 12 Sep 2007 at 9:06 am

    Israel wasn’t a bubble. I think it’s too much to assume that no
    cultural influences were seeping into their religious life, as much as
    they were prone to resist it. There are other elements of the Jesus
    story that look similar to pagan ideas. And there are other ways that
    early Christianity broke with Judaism, too.

  2. Honzo [Member]on 14 Sep 2007 at 2:33 pm

    No one is claiming that Israel was in a bubble. What Wright is pointing
    out is a couple of literary curiosities in the origin stories from both
    Luke and Matthew. With Matthew’s audience being largely Jewish, and
    considering his overt concern with showing that Jesus was a good Jew,
    the best of all Jews as a matter of fact, it does not make sense that
    Matthew would include a pagan origin story. One would expect that from
    Mark, but not Matthew. Why would someone concerned with all matters
    Jewish reinterpret an obscure Hebrew Bible story into realized prophecy
    with a pagan bend? One of the most plausible answers is that it was
    widely believed that he was born of virgin. The invention where none is
    necessary is a clue to something actually happening.

    Wright puts it this way:

    The only conceivable parallels are pagan ones, and these
    fiercely Jewish stories have certainly not been modeled on them. Luke
    at least must have known that telling this story this story ran the
    risk of making Jesus to be a pagan demigod. Why, for the sake of an
    exalted metaphor, would they take this risk - unless they at least
    believed them to be literally true?

    The second thing is the presence of the virgin birth (a pagan concept,
    see the writings of Virgil) in two conflicting stories. If there was a
    common literary or oral source for this, one would expect the details
    of the origin to be the same. That is an indicator of a common source.
    Instead, the stories vary wildly. This suggests that the story is
    rooted in something deeper than a common oral or literary source.
    Things that are based in multiple sources are more likely to be
    historical than something that only has one oral or literary source.

    Wright puts it this way:

    If the evangelists belived them to be true, when and by
    whom were they invented, if by the time of Matthew and Luke two such
    different, yet so completely compatible, stories were in circulation?
    …We would have to suppose that, within the first fifty years of
    Christianity, a double move took place: from an early very Jewish, high
    Christology, to a sudden paganization, and back to a very Jewish
    storytelling again.


    Again, these are only evidence for something that cannot be proven or disproven historically.

  3. danny [Visitor]on 15 Sep 2007 at 2:00 pm

    Didn’t Matthew use Mark as a source? If Mark would use a pagan story
    and Matthew would use Mark, then it doesn’t seem that mysterious.

    I’ve never heard someone claim that because two versions of a story are
    very different, then there must be a true story in back of them. There
    probably was an older, less detailed story, just as many of Mark’s
    stories are older and shorter. Then the authors of Matthew and Luke
    came along and embellished like they did with so many other stories.

    The Jewish-pagan-Jewish thing assumes that there’s one linear thread of
    early Christian thought. That’s just not the case. They were spread
    over an empire and the traditions were diverging in several directions.
    Some writers were trying to make the story more Jewish, others were
    pulling it toward the Gentile worldview.

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